UGC NET Forensic Science - Mock Test (Mock Test -2) | Complete Syllabus Paper 1 and 2

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UGC NET Forensic Science Mock Test 2025 | Mock Test-2

Paper 1: General Paper (50 Questions)

1. The reflective level of teaching primarily focuses on:

A) Memorizing facts
B) Problem-solving and critical thinking
C) Understanding concepts
D) Recalling definitions

2. Which learner characteristic significantly affects teaching effectiveness?

A) Physical appearance
B) Financial background
C) Cognitive abilities
D) Political beliefs

3. Which factor is most critical for effective teaching?

A) Classroom size
B) Teacher’s communication skills
C) Institutional reputation
D) Availability of textbooks

4. SWAYAM is an example of:

A) Online teaching method
B) Teacher-centered method
C) Offline teaching method
D) Traditional teaching method

5. Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) evaluation emphasizes:

A) Only summative assessment
B) Memorization-based testing
C) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
D) Single final exam

6. Positivism in research emphasizes:

A) Subjective interpretation
B) Objective observation
C) Narrative analysis
D) Personal opinions

7. Which research method is best suited for studying historical events?

A) Historical method
B) Experimental method
C) Quantitative method
D) Descriptive method

8. The first step in the research process is:

A) Data collection
B) Data analysis
C) Identifying the problem
D) Writing the thesis

9. APA style is commonly used for:

A) Data collection
B) Referencing in research articles
C) Experimental design
D) Statistical analysis

10. Research ethics requires:

A) Informed consent from participants
B) Data fabrication
C) Ignoring participant confidentiality
D) Selective reporting

11. Passage: Higher education fosters innovation and critical thinking, enabling individuals to contribute to societal progress. However, challenges like limited access and high costs hinder its reach. Governments must invest in inclusive policies to ensure equitable education.
What is the main purpose of higher education according to the passage?

A) Ensuring employment
B) Fostering innovation and critical thinking
C) Reducing costs
D) Limiting access

12. What is a key challenge mentioned in the passage?

A) Lack of teachers
B) Outdated curricula
C) High costs
D) Excessive innovation

13. The passage suggests governments should:

A) Invest in inclusive policies
B) Reduce critical thinking
C) Limit educational access
D) Ignore societal progress

14. The tone of the passage is:

A) Narrative
B) Persuasive
C) Critical
D) Humorous

15. Higher education enables individuals to:

A) Contribute to societal progress
B) Avoid innovation
C) Increase costs
D) Limit access

16. Effective classroom communication requires:

A) Complex jargon
B) Clarity and simplicity
C) One-way delivery
D) Avoiding student feedback

17. A common barrier to effective communication is:

A) Language differences
B) Use of visual aids
C) Clear articulation
D) Active listening

18. Non-verbal communication includes:

A) Written reports
B) Facial expressions
C) Emails
D) Textbooks

19. Mass media primarily influences:

A) Classroom teaching
B) Individual behavior
C) Societal perceptions
D) Research ethics

20. Inter-cultural communication requires:

A) Cultural sensitivity
B) Uniform language
C) Avoiding diversity
D) Standardized messages

21. If 5 workers complete a task in 8 days, how many days will 4 workers take?

A) 9
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14

22. What is 15% of 200?

A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35

23. Complete the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, ?

A) 26
B) 28
C) 30
D) 32

24. A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. What is its speed in km/h?

A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80

25. If the ratio of A to B is 3:4 and B to C is 2:5, what is A to C?

A) 3:5
B) 4:5
C) 3:10
D) 4:10

26. If all roses are flowers, and some flowers are red, then:

A) All roses are red
B) Some roses may be red
C) No roses are red
D) All flowers are roses

27. In Indian logic, Pratyaksha refers to:

A) Perception
B) Inference
C) Comparison
D) Verbal testimony

28. A Venn diagram is used to:

A) Analyze data
B) Compute statistics
C) Establish argument validity
D) Create charts

29. Hetvabhasas refers to:

A) Types of knowledge
B) Fallacies of inference
C) Structures of arguments
D) Forms of testimony

30. Deductive reasoning involves:

A) General to specific conclusions
B) Specific to general conclusions
C) No conclusions
D) Random assumptions

31. Table: Students enrolled (2024) | Branch | Male | Female |
Science: 50, 60 | Arts: 40, 50 | Commerce: 60, 40
Which branch has the highest total enrollment?

A) Arts
B) Commerce
C) Science
D) Equal

32. Total number of female students across all branches?

A) 140
B) 150
C) 160
D) 170

33. Difference in male students between Commerce and Arts?

A) 20
B) 10
C) 30
D) 40

34. Percentage of female students in Science branch?

A) 50%
B) 54.55%
C) 60%
D) 45.45%

35. Which graphical representation is best for comparing enrollment across branches?

A) Line chart
B) Pie chart
C) Bar chart
D) Histogram

36. The term ‘HTTP’ stands for:

A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) High Transfer Text Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Text Protocol
D) HyperText Terminal Protocol

37. Which is a digital initiative in higher education?

A) Traditional blackboard
B) National Digital Library
C) Printed textbooks
D) Manual attendance

38. Intranet is a:

A) Public network
B) Global network
C) Private network
D) Social network

39. ICT in governance includes:

A) Manual record-keeping
B) E-governance portals
C) Physical surveys
D) Paper-based voting

40. Video-conferencing is used for:

A) Remote collaboration
B) Data storage
C) Software development
D) Hardware repair

41. The Paris Agreement focuses on:

A) Biodiversity conservation
B) Climate change mitigation
C) Nuclear energy
D) Water pollution

42. Which is a renewable energy resource?

A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Wind
D) Natural gas

43. Air pollution primarily impacts:

A) Human health
B) Software systems
C) Educational policies
D) Economic growth

44. The Montreal Protocol addresses:

A) Carbon emissions
B) Ozone-depleting substances
C) Deforestation
D) Plastic waste

45. Sustainable Development Goals were adopted in:

A) 2000
B) 2010
C) 2015
D) 2020

46. The University Grants Commission (UGC) regulates:

A) Higher education
B) School education
C) Primary education
D) Vocational training

47. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes:

A) Only traditional learning
B) Limited skill development
C) Holistic and flexible education
D) Standardized testing

48. Value education focuses on:

A) Technical skills
B) Ethical and moral development
C) Financial management
D) Physical fitness

49. Non-conventional learning programs include:

A) Distance education
B) Only classroom teaching
C) Memorization-based learning
D) Standardized curricula

50. The evolution of higher education in post-independence India focused on:

A) Limiting access
B) Expanding access and research
C) Reducing institutions
D) Ignoring skill development

Paper 2: Forensic Science (100 Questions)

1. Forensic science is defined as the application of science to:

A) Medical diagnosis
B) Criminal and civil laws
C) Environmental studies
D) Industrial processes

2. The Locard’s Exchange Principle states that:

A) Every contact leaves a trace
B) Evidence cannot be destroyed
C) All fingerprints are unique
D) DNA is always conclusive

3. The chain of custody ensures:

A) Evidence authenticity
B) Rapid analysis
C) Sample destruction
D) Public access to evidence

4. Which of the following is a physical evidence type?

A) Testimonial evidence
B) Bloodstains
C) Witness statements
D) Confessions

5. The primary role of a forensic scientist is to:

A) Arrest suspects
B) Analyze evidence
C) Prosecute cases
D) Investigate crimes

6. The first step in crime scene investigation is to:

A) Collect evidence
B) Secure the scene
C) Analyze samples
D) Interview witnesses

7. Which method is used to preserve footprints at a crime scene?

A) Photography
B) Casting
C) Swabbing
D) Taping

8. The ‘golden hour’ in forensic investigation refers to:

A) Time for lab analysis
B) Initial period after the crime
C) Court hearing time
D) Evidence storage duration

9. Sketching a crime scene is done to:

A) Replace photography
B) Document spatial relationships
C) Analyze evidence
D) Identify suspects

10. Which tool is used to collect trace evidence like hair?

A) Scalpel
B) Forceps
C) Pipette
D) Spatula

11. The primary source of DNA in forensic analysis is:

A) Hair shaft
B) Red blood cells
C) White blood cells
D) Sweat

12. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to:

A) Visualize fingerprints
B) Amplify DNA
C) Identify toxins
D) Analyze ballistics

13. Which blood group system is commonly used in forensic serology?

A) ABO system
B) Rh system
C) MNS system
D) Duffy system

14. The Kastle-Meyer test detects:

A) Saliva
B) Blood
C) Semen
D) Urine

15. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from:

A) Father
B) Mother
C) Both parents
D) Siblings

16. The primary component of gunshot residue is:

A) Lead
B) Sulfur
C) Carbon
D) Nitrogen

17. Which technique is used to identify drugs in forensic chemistry?

A) Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
B) Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

18. The flash point of a substance is:

A) Temperature at which it ignites
B) Temperature at which it melts
C) Temperature at which it boils
D) Temperature at which it decomposes

19. The Liebermann test is used to detect:

A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Marijuana
D) LSD

20. Arson investigation primarily involves analyzing:

A) Bloodstains
B) Accelerants
C) Fingerprints
D) DNA

21. The most common biological sample for toxicology is:

A) Hair
B) Blood
C) Saliva
D) Bone

22. Which poison is detected by the Reinsch test?

A) Arsenic
B) Cyanide
C) Lead
D) Mercury

23. The half-life of a drug refers to:

A) Time for complete elimination
B) Time for 50% reduction in concentration
C) Time for absorption
D) Time for metabolism

24. Ethanol is commonly analyzed in cases of:

A) Drug overdose
B) Poisoning
C) Drunken driving
D) Arson

25. Which instrument is used to measure blood alcohol concentration?

A) Spectrophotometer
B) Breathalyzer
C) GC-MS
D) HPLC

26. The refractive index is a key property in analyzing:

A) Glass
B) Fibers
C) Paint
D) Soil

27. The principle of projectile motion is applied in:

A) Bloodstain pattern analysis
B) Ballistics
C) Glass fracture analysis
D) Fiber analysis

28. The Doppler effect is used in forensic science to:

A) Analyze sound evidence
B) Identify fibers
C) Detect fingerprints
D) Measure DNA

29. The angle of impact in bloodstain analysis is calculated using:

A) Length-to-width ratio
B) Volume of blood
C) Blood viscosity
D) Surface tension

30. Which instrument is used to analyze tool marks?

A) Comparison microscope
B) SEM
C) FTIR
D) UV-Vis spectrophotometer

31. The primary ridge characteristic used in fingerprint analysis is:

A) Loop
B) Whorl
C) Minutiae
D) Arch

32. Ninhydrin is used to develop fingerprints on:

A) Glass
B) Paper
C) Metal
D) Plastic

33. The AFIS system is used for:

A) DNA profiling
B) Fingerprint matching
C) Drug analysis
D) Bloodstain analysis

34. A patent fingerprint is:

A) Invisible to the naked eye
B) Visible without enhancement
C) Formed in blood
D) Developed by chemicals

35. The primary method to preserve tire impressions is:

A) Photography
B) Casting
C) Swabbing
D) Lifting

36. The primary purpose of questioned document examination is to:

A) Identify handwriting
B) Detect forgeries
C) Both A and B
D) Analyze paper quality

37. The VSC (Video Spectral Comparator) is used to analyze:

A) Fingerprints
B) Ink differences
C) DNA samples
D) Bloodstains

38. Which technique detects alterations in documents?

A) Infrared spectroscopy
B) Gas chromatography
C) PCR
D) SEM

39. ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) is used to detect:

A) Ink composition
B) Indented writing
C) Paper type
D) Forged signatures

40. Handwriting analysis focuses on:

A) Individual characteristics
B) Paper texture
C) Printer type
D) Ink color

41. The primary goal of digital forensics is to:

A) Develop software
B) Recover and analyze digital evidence
C) Hack systems
D) Design networks

42. A hash value in digital forensics is used to:

A) Verify data integrity
B) Encrypt files
C) Compress data
D) Delete evidence

43. The tool EnCase is used for:

A) DNA analysis
B) Digital evidence recovery
C) Fingerprint development
D) Bloodstain analysis

44. Steganography in digital forensics involves:

A) Data encryption
B) Data compression
C) Hiding data within other data
D) Data deletion

45. The chain of custody in digital forensics ensures:

A) Evidence admissibility
B) Data encryption
C) File compression
D) Software compatibility

46. Forensic anthropology primarily deals with:

A) Bloodstain analysis
B) Skeletal remains
C) Drug identification
D) Fingerprint analysis

47. The determination of age in forensic anthropology is based on:

A) Bone fusion
B) Hair color
C) Blood type
D) Skin texture

48. The pelvis is primarily used to determine:

A) Age
B) Sex
C) Height
D) Race

49. Stature estimation in forensic anthropology uses:

A) Long bone length
B) Skull size
C) Tooth wear
D) Rib count

50. Trauma analysis in forensic anthropology examines:

A) DNA profiles
B) Bloodstains
C) Bone fractures
D) Hair samples

51. The Daubert standard is used to evaluate:

A) Crime scene security
B) Admissibility of scientific evidence
C) Witness credibility
D) Chain of custody

52. The Frye standard relates to:

A) General acceptance of scientific methods
B) DNA sequencing
C) Fingerprint classification
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis

53. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, governs:

A) Crime scene investigation
B) Forensic lab protocols
C) Admissibility of evidence in court
D) Police interrogation

54. Expert testimony in court is provided by:

A) Police officers
B) Forensic scientists
C) Lawyers
D) Witnesses

55. The role of a forensic scientist in court is to:

A) Present scientific findings
B) Determine guilt
C) Cross-examine witnesses
D) File charges

56. The primary purpose of a control sample in forensic analysis is to:

A) Identify suspects
B) Ensure accuracy of results
C) Replace evidence
D) Speed up analysis

57. The standard deviation in forensic statistics measures:

A) Data variability
B) Data accuracy
C) Data collection speed
D) Data volume

58. A false positive in forensic testing refers to:

A) Correct identification
B) Missed evidence
C) Incorrect identification of a substance
D) Negative test result

59. The probability of a DNA match is expressed using:

A) Mean value
B) Random match probability
C) Standard error
D) Median value

60. Quality control in forensic labs ensures:

A) Reliable results
B) Faster analysis
C) Reduced costs
D) Increased sample volume

61. The primary use of a scanning electron microscope (SEM) in forensics is:

A) DNA sequencing
B) Surface analysis
C) Blood typing
D) Drug synthesis

62. FTIR spectroscopy is primarily used to identify:

A) Organic compounds
B) Inorganic metals
C) DNA profiles
D) Bloodstains

63. The comparison microscope is used in:

A) DNA analysis
B) Toxicology
C) Firearm and tool mark analysis
D) Serology

64. The primary advantage of HPLC in forensic analysis is:

A) DNA amplification
B) Separation of complex mixtures
C) Fingerprint development
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis

65. The UV-Vis spectrophotometer is used to:

A) Analyze colorants
B) Amplify DNA
C) Detect fingerprints
D) Measure bone density

66. The primary source of error in forensic DNA analysis is:

A) Equipment failure
B) Sample contamination
C) Software bugs
D) Lack of training

67. The CODIS database is used for:

A) DNA profile matching
B) Fingerprint storage
C) Drug identification
D) Ballistics analysis

68. The STR (Short Tandem Repeat) analysis is used in:

A) Drug testing
B) Fingerprint analysis
C) DNA profiling
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis

69. The primary challenge in forensic toxicology is:

A) Lack of equipment
B) Detecting low concentrations
C) Fingerprint contamination
D) DNA degradation

70. The Marquis test is used to detect:

A) Opiates
B) Cyanide
C) Arsenic
D) Lead

71. The primary use of a polarizing microscope in forensics is:

A) DNA analysis
B) Fiber identification
C) Blood typing
D) Drug synthesis

72. The density gradient technique is used to analyze:

A) Soil samples
B) Blood samples
C) Hair samples
D) Ink samples

73. The primary purpose of a forensic autopsy is to:

A) Identify suspects
B) Collect fingerprints
C) Determine cause of death
D) Analyze drugs

74. Rigor mortis is used to estimate:

A) Age of the deceased
B) Time of death
C) Cause of death
D) Identity of the deceased

75. Livor mortis refers to:

A) Post-mortem blood pooling
B) Muscle stiffening
C) Body cooling
D) Tissue decomposition

76. The primary use of entomology in forensics is to:

A) Identify drugs
B) Estimate time of death
C) Analyze fingerprints
D) Detect poisons

77. The blowfly life cycle is critical in:

A) Forensic entomology
B) Forensic toxicology
C) Forensic serology
D) Forensic anthropology

78. The primary challenge in forensic odontology is:

A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Identifying dental records
D) Fingerprint analysis

79. Bite mark analysis is part of:

A) Forensic toxicology
B) Forensic odontology
C) Forensic anthropology
D) Forensic serology

80. The primary use of dental records in forensics is:

A) Victim identification
B) Drug detection
C) Blood typing
D) Fingerprint matching

81. The primary purpose of a forensic psychologist is to:

A) Analyze physical evidence
B) Assess mental state
C) Collect fingerprints
D) Identify drugs

82. Criminal profiling is used to:

A) Narrow down suspects
B) Analyze DNA
C) Detect poisons
D) Identify fingerprints

83. The insanity defense is evaluated by:

A) Forensic anthropologists
B) Forensic toxicologists
C) Forensic psychologists
D) Forensic serologists

84. The primary challenge in forensic psychology is:

A) Lack of equipment
B) Subjectivity in assessments
C) DNA contamination
D) Fingerprint analysis

85. Polygraph tests measure:

A) Physiological responses
B) DNA profiles
C) Blood types
D) Drug concentrations

86. The primary use of a forensic entomologist is to:

A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Study insect evidence
C) Identify drugs
D) Detect bloodstains

87. The primary challenge in forensic entomology is:

A) Environmental variability
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Fingerprint analysis

88. The primary use of a forensic serologist is to:

A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Identify drugs
C) Analyze body fluids
D) Detect explosives

89. The acid phosphatase test is used to detect:

A) Blood
B) Semen
C) Saliva
D) Urine

90. The primary challenge in forensic serology is:

A) Sample degradation
B) Lack of equipment
C) Fingerprint contamination
D) Drug identification

91. The primary use of a forensic chemist is to:

A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Identify unknown substances
C) Estimate time of death
D) Analyze skeletal remains

92. The Scott test is used to detect:

A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Marijuana
D) LSD

93. The primary challenge in forensic chemistry is:

A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Complex mixtures
D) Fingerprint analysis

94. The primary use of a forensic physicist is to:

A) Analyze DNA
B) Analyze physical properties
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death

95. The primary challenge in forensic physics is:

A) Interpretation of patterns
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Drug identification

96. The primary use of a forensic ballistics expert is to:

A) Analyze DNA
B) Analyze firearms evidence
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death

97. The lands and grooves in a firearm barrel produce:

A) Bullet striations
B) Cartridge residues
C) Primer marks
D) Ejector marks

98. The primary challenge in forensic ballistics is:

A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Matching worn firearms
D) Drug identification

99. The primary use of a forensic document examiner is to:

A) Analyze DNA
B) Detect document fraud
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death

100. The primary challenge in questioned document examination is:

A) Detecting subtle alterations
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Drug identification

Test Results

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