Paper 1: General Paper (50 Questions)
1. The reflective level of teaching primarily focuses on:
A) Memorizing facts
B) Problem-solving and critical thinking
C) Understanding concepts
D) Recalling definitions
2. Which learner characteristic significantly affects teaching effectiveness?
A) Physical appearance
B) Financial background
C) Cognitive abilities
D) Political beliefs
3. Which factor is most critical for effective teaching?
A) Classroom size
B) Teacher’s communication skills
C) Institutional reputation
D) Availability of textbooks
4. SWAYAM is an example of:
A) Online teaching method
B) Teacher-centered method
C) Offline teaching method
D) Traditional teaching method
5. Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) evaluation emphasizes:
A) Only summative assessment
B) Memorization-based testing
C) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
D) Single final exam
6. Positivism in research emphasizes:
A) Subjective interpretation
B) Objective observation
C) Narrative analysis
D) Personal opinions
7. Which research method is best suited for studying historical events?
A) Historical method
B) Experimental method
C) Quantitative method
D) Descriptive method
8. The first step in the research process is:
A) Data collection
B) Data analysis
C) Identifying the problem
D) Writing the thesis
9. APA style is commonly used for:
A) Data collection
B) Referencing in research articles
C) Experimental design
D) Statistical analysis
10. Research ethics requires:
A) Informed consent from participants
B) Data fabrication
C) Ignoring participant confidentiality
D) Selective reporting
11. Passage: Higher education fosters innovation and critical thinking, enabling individuals to contribute to societal progress. However, challenges like limited access and high costs hinder its reach. Governments must invest in inclusive policies to ensure equitable education.
What is the main purpose of higher education according to the passage?
A) Ensuring employment
B) Fostering innovation and critical thinking
C) Reducing costs
D) Limiting access
12. What is a key challenge mentioned in the passage?
A) Lack of teachers
B) Outdated curricula
C) High costs
D) Excessive innovation
13. The passage suggests governments should:
A) Invest in inclusive policies
B) Reduce critical thinking
C) Limit educational access
D) Ignore societal progress
14. The tone of the passage is:
A) Narrative
B) Persuasive
C) Critical
D) Humorous
15. Higher education enables individuals to:
A) Contribute to societal progress
B) Avoid innovation
C) Increase costs
D) Limit access
16. Effective classroom communication requires:
A) Complex jargon
B) Clarity and simplicity
C) One-way delivery
D) Avoiding student feedback
17. A common barrier to effective communication is:
A) Language differences
B) Use of visual aids
C) Clear articulation
D) Active listening
18. Non-verbal communication includes:
A) Written reports
B) Facial expressions
C) Emails
D) Textbooks
19. Mass media primarily influences:
A) Classroom teaching
B) Individual behavior
C) Societal perceptions
D) Research ethics
20. Inter-cultural communication requires:
A) Cultural sensitivity
B) Uniform language
C) Avoiding diversity
D) Standardized messages
21. If 5 workers complete a task in 8 days, how many days will 4 workers take?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
22. What is 15% of 200?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
23. Complete the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, ?
A) 26
B) 28
C) 30
D) 32
24. A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
25. If the ratio of A to B is 3:4 and B to C is 2:5, what is A to C?
A) 3:5
B) 4:5
C) 3:10
D) 4:10
26. If all roses are flowers, and some flowers are red, then:
A) All roses are red
B) Some roses may be red
C) No roses are red
D) All flowers are roses
27. In Indian logic, Pratyaksha refers to:
A) Perception
B) Inference
C) Comparison
D) Verbal testimony
28. A Venn diagram is used to:
A) Analyze data
B) Compute statistics
C) Establish argument validity
D) Create charts
29. Hetvabhasas refers to:
A) Types of knowledge
B) Fallacies of inference
C) Structures of arguments
D) Forms of testimony
30. Deductive reasoning involves:
A) General to specific conclusions
B) Specific to general conclusions
C) No conclusions
D) Random assumptions
31. Table: Students enrolled (2024) | Branch | Male | Female |
Science: 50, 60 | Arts: 40, 50 | Commerce: 60, 40
Which branch has the highest total enrollment?
A) Arts
B) Commerce
C) Science
D) Equal
32. Total number of female students across all branches?
A) 140
B) 150
C) 160
D) 170
33. Difference in male students between Commerce and Arts?
A) 20
B) 10
C) 30
D) 40
34. Percentage of female students in Science branch?
A) 50%
B) 54.55%
C) 60%
D) 45.45%
35. Which graphical representation is best for comparing enrollment across branches?
A) Line chart
B) Pie chart
C) Bar chart
D) Histogram
36. The term ‘HTTP’ stands for:
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) High Transfer Text Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Text Protocol
D) HyperText Terminal Protocol
37. Which is a digital initiative in higher education?
A) Traditional blackboard
B) National Digital Library
C) Printed textbooks
D) Manual attendance
38. Intranet is a:
A) Public network
B) Global network
C) Private network
D) Social network
39. ICT in governance includes:
A) Manual record-keeping
B) E-governance portals
C) Physical surveys
D) Paper-based voting
40. Video-conferencing is used for:
A) Remote collaboration
B) Data storage
C) Software development
D) Hardware repair
41. The Paris Agreement focuses on:
A) Biodiversity conservation
B) Climate change mitigation
C) Nuclear energy
D) Water pollution
42. Which is a renewable energy resource?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Wind
D) Natural gas
43. Air pollution primarily impacts:
A) Human health
B) Software systems
C) Educational policies
D) Economic growth
44. The Montreal Protocol addresses:
A) Carbon emissions
B) Ozone-depleting substances
C) Deforestation
D) Plastic waste
45. Sustainable Development Goals were adopted in:
A) 2000
B) 2010
C) 2015
D) 2020
46. The University Grants Commission (UGC) regulates:
A) Higher education
B) School education
C) Primary education
D) Vocational training
47. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes:
A) Only traditional learning
B) Limited skill development
C) Holistic and flexible education
D) Standardized testing
48. Value education focuses on:
A) Technical skills
B) Ethical and moral development
C) Financial management
D) Physical fitness
49. Non-conventional learning programs include:
A) Distance education
B) Only classroom teaching
C) Memorization-based learning
D) Standardized curricula
50. The evolution of higher education in post-independence India focused on:
A) Limiting access
B) Expanding access and research
C) Reducing institutions
D) Ignoring skill development
Paper 2: Forensic Science (100 Questions)
1. Forensic science is defined as the application of science to:
A) Medical diagnosis
B) Criminal and civil laws
C) Environmental studies
D) Industrial processes
2. The Locard’s Exchange Principle states that:
A) Every contact leaves a trace
B) Evidence cannot be destroyed
C) All fingerprints are unique
D) DNA is always conclusive
3. The chain of custody ensures:
A) Evidence authenticity
B) Rapid analysis
C) Sample destruction
D) Public access to evidence
4. Which of the following is a physical evidence type?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Bloodstains
C) Witness statements
D) Confessions
5. The primary role of a forensic scientist is to:
A) Arrest suspects
B) Analyze evidence
C) Prosecute cases
D) Investigate crimes
6. The first step in crime scene investigation is to:
A) Collect evidence
B) Secure the scene
C) Analyze samples
D) Interview witnesses
7. Which method is used to preserve footprints at a crime scene?
A) Photography
B) Casting
C) Swabbing
D) Taping
8. The ‘golden hour’ in forensic investigation refers to:
A) Time for lab analysis
B) Initial period after the crime
C) Court hearing time
D) Evidence storage duration
9. Sketching a crime scene is done to:
A) Replace photography
B) Document spatial relationships
C) Analyze evidence
D) Identify suspects
10. Which tool is used to collect trace evidence like hair?
A) Scalpel
B) Forceps
C) Pipette
D) Spatula
11. The primary source of DNA in forensic analysis is:
A) Hair shaft
B) Red blood cells
C) White blood cells
D) Sweat
12. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to:
A) Visualize fingerprints
B) Amplify DNA
C) Identify toxins
D) Analyze ballistics
13. Which blood group system is commonly used in forensic serology?
A) ABO system
B) Rh system
C) MNS system
D) Duffy system
14. The Kastle-Meyer test detects:
A) Saliva
B) Blood
C) Semen
D) Urine
15. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from:
A) Father
B) Mother
C) Both parents
D) Siblings
16. The primary component of gunshot residue is:
A) Lead
B) Sulfur
C) Carbon
D) Nitrogen
17. Which technique is used to identify drugs in forensic chemistry?
A) Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
B) Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
18. The flash point of a substance is:
A) Temperature at which it ignites
B) Temperature at which it melts
C) Temperature at which it boils
D) Temperature at which it decomposes
19. The Liebermann test is used to detect:
A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Marijuana
D) LSD
20. Arson investigation primarily involves analyzing:
A) Bloodstains
B) Accelerants
C) Fingerprints
D) DNA
21. The most common biological sample for toxicology is:
A) Hair
B) Blood
C) Saliva
D) Bone
22. Which poison is detected by the Reinsch test?
A) Arsenic
B) Cyanide
C) Lead
D) Mercury
23. The half-life of a drug refers to:
A) Time for complete elimination
B) Time for 50% reduction in concentration
C) Time for absorption
D) Time for metabolism
24. Ethanol is commonly analyzed in cases of:
A) Drug overdose
B) Poisoning
C) Drunken driving
D) Arson
25. Which instrument is used to measure blood alcohol concentration?
A) Spectrophotometer
B) Breathalyzer
C) GC-MS
D) HPLC
26. The refractive index is a key property in analyzing:
A) Glass
B) Fibers
C) Paint
D) Soil
27. The principle of projectile motion is applied in:
A) Bloodstain pattern analysis
B) Ballistics
C) Glass fracture analysis
D) Fiber analysis
28. The Doppler effect is used in forensic science to:
A) Analyze sound evidence
B) Identify fibers
C) Detect fingerprints
D) Measure DNA
29. The angle of impact in bloodstain analysis is calculated using:
A) Length-to-width ratio
B) Volume of blood
C) Blood viscosity
D) Surface tension
30. Which instrument is used to analyze tool marks?
A) Comparison microscope
B) SEM
C) FTIR
D) UV-Vis spectrophotometer
31. The primary ridge characteristic used in fingerprint analysis is:
A) Loop
B) Whorl
C) Minutiae
D) Arch
32. Ninhydrin is used to develop fingerprints on:
A) Glass
B) Paper
C) Metal
D) Plastic
33. The AFIS system is used for:
A) DNA profiling
B) Fingerprint matching
C) Drug analysis
D) Bloodstain analysis
34. A patent fingerprint is:
A) Invisible to the naked eye
B) Visible without enhancement
C) Formed in blood
D) Developed by chemicals
35. The primary method to preserve tire impressions is:
A) Photography
B) Casting
C) Swabbing
D) Lifting
36. The primary purpose of questioned document examination is to:
A) Identify handwriting
B) Detect forgeries
C) Both A and B
D) Analyze paper quality
37. The VSC (Video Spectral Comparator) is used to analyze:
A) Fingerprints
B) Ink differences
C) DNA samples
D) Bloodstains
38. Which technique detects alterations in documents?
A) Infrared spectroscopy
B) Gas chromatography
C) PCR
D) SEM
39. ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) is used to detect:
A) Ink composition
B) Indented writing
C) Paper type
D) Forged signatures
40. Handwriting analysis focuses on:
A) Individual characteristics
B) Paper texture
C) Printer type
D) Ink color
41. The primary goal of digital forensics is to:
A) Develop software
B) Recover and analyze digital evidence
C) Hack systems
D) Design networks
42. A hash value in digital forensics is used to:
A) Verify data integrity
B) Encrypt files
C) Compress data
D) Delete evidence
43. The tool EnCase is used for:
A) DNA analysis
B) Digital evidence recovery
C) Fingerprint development
D) Bloodstain analysis
44. Steganography in digital forensics involves:
A) Data encryption
B) Data compression
C) Hiding data within other data
D) Data deletion
45. The chain of custody in digital forensics ensures:
A) Evidence admissibility
B) Data encryption
C) File compression
D) Software compatibility
46. Forensic anthropology primarily deals with:
A) Bloodstain analysis
B) Skeletal remains
C) Drug identification
D) Fingerprint analysis
47. The determination of age in forensic anthropology is based on:
A) Bone fusion
B) Hair color
C) Blood type
D) Skin texture
48. The pelvis is primarily used to determine:
A) Age
B) Sex
C) Height
D) Race
49. Stature estimation in forensic anthropology uses:
A) Long bone length
B) Skull size
C) Tooth wear
D) Rib count
50. Trauma analysis in forensic anthropology examines:
A) DNA profiles
B) Bloodstains
C) Bone fractures
D) Hair samples
51. The Daubert standard is used to evaluate:
A) Crime scene security
B) Admissibility of scientific evidence
C) Witness credibility
D) Chain of custody
52. The Frye standard relates to:
A) General acceptance of scientific methods
B) DNA sequencing
C) Fingerprint classification
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis
53. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, governs:
A) Crime scene investigation
B) Forensic lab protocols
C) Admissibility of evidence in court
D) Police interrogation
54. Expert testimony in court is provided by:
A) Police officers
B) Forensic scientists
C) Lawyers
D) Witnesses
55. The role of a forensic scientist in court is to:
A) Present scientific findings
B) Determine guilt
C) Cross-examine witnesses
D) File charges
56. The primary purpose of a control sample in forensic analysis is to:
A) Identify suspects
B) Ensure accuracy of results
C) Replace evidence
D) Speed up analysis
57. The standard deviation in forensic statistics measures:
A) Data variability
B) Data accuracy
C) Data collection speed
D) Data volume
58. A false positive in forensic testing refers to:
A) Correct identification
B) Missed evidence
C) Incorrect identification of a substance
D) Negative test result
59. The probability of a DNA match is expressed using:
A) Mean value
B) Random match probability
C) Standard error
D) Median value
60. Quality control in forensic labs ensures:
A) Reliable results
B) Faster analysis
C) Reduced costs
D) Increased sample volume
61. The primary use of a scanning electron microscope (SEM) in forensics is:
A) DNA sequencing
B) Surface analysis
C) Blood typing
D) Drug synthesis
62. FTIR spectroscopy is primarily used to identify:
A) Organic compounds
B) Inorganic metals
C) DNA profiles
D) Bloodstains
63. The comparison microscope is used in:
A) DNA analysis
B) Toxicology
C) Firearm and tool mark analysis
D) Serology
64. The primary advantage of HPLC in forensic analysis is:
A) DNA amplification
B) Separation of complex mixtures
C) Fingerprint development
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis
65. The UV-Vis spectrophotometer is used to:
A) Analyze colorants
B) Amplify DNA
C) Detect fingerprints
D) Measure bone density
66. The primary source of error in forensic DNA analysis is:
A) Equipment failure
B) Sample contamination
C) Software bugs
D) Lack of training
67. The CODIS database is used for:
A) DNA profile matching
B) Fingerprint storage
C) Drug identification
D) Ballistics analysis
68. The STR (Short Tandem Repeat) analysis is used in:
A) Drug testing
B) Fingerprint analysis
C) DNA profiling
D) Bloodstain pattern analysis
69. The primary challenge in forensic toxicology is:
A) Lack of equipment
B) Detecting low concentrations
C) Fingerprint contamination
D) DNA degradation
70. The Marquis test is used to detect:
A) Opiates
B) Cyanide
C) Arsenic
D) Lead
71. The primary use of a polarizing microscope in forensics is:
A) DNA analysis
B) Fiber identification
C) Blood typing
D) Drug synthesis
72. The density gradient technique is used to analyze:
A) Soil samples
B) Blood samples
C) Hair samples
D) Ink samples
73. The primary purpose of a forensic autopsy is to:
A) Identify suspects
B) Collect fingerprints
C) Determine cause of death
D) Analyze drugs
74. Rigor mortis is used to estimate:
A) Age of the deceased
B) Time of death
C) Cause of death
D) Identity of the deceased
75. Livor mortis refers to:
A) Post-mortem blood pooling
B) Muscle stiffening
C) Body cooling
D) Tissue decomposition
76. The primary use of entomology in forensics is to:
A) Identify drugs
B) Estimate time of death
C) Analyze fingerprints
D) Detect poisons
77. The blowfly life cycle is critical in:
A) Forensic entomology
B) Forensic toxicology
C) Forensic serology
D) Forensic anthropology
78. The primary challenge in forensic odontology is:
A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Identifying dental records
D) Fingerprint analysis
79. Bite mark analysis is part of:
A) Forensic toxicology
B) Forensic odontology
C) Forensic anthropology
D) Forensic serology
80. The primary use of dental records in forensics is:
A) Victim identification
B) Drug detection
C) Blood typing
D) Fingerprint matching
81. The primary purpose of a forensic psychologist is to:
A) Analyze physical evidence
B) Assess mental state
C) Collect fingerprints
D) Identify drugs
82. Criminal profiling is used to:
A) Narrow down suspects
B) Analyze DNA
C) Detect poisons
D) Identify fingerprints
83. The insanity defense is evaluated by:
A) Forensic anthropologists
B) Forensic toxicologists
C) Forensic psychologists
D) Forensic serologists
84. The primary challenge in forensic psychology is:
A) Lack of equipment
B) Subjectivity in assessments
C) DNA contamination
D) Fingerprint analysis
85. Polygraph tests measure:
A) Physiological responses
B) DNA profiles
C) Blood types
D) Drug concentrations
86. The primary use of a forensic entomologist is to:
A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Study insect evidence
C) Identify drugs
D) Detect bloodstains
87. The primary challenge in forensic entomology is:
A) Environmental variability
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Fingerprint analysis
88. The primary use of a forensic serologist is to:
A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Identify drugs
C) Analyze body fluids
D) Detect explosives
89. The acid phosphatase test is used to detect:
A) Blood
B) Semen
C) Saliva
D) Urine
90. The primary challenge in forensic serology is:
A) Sample degradation
B) Lack of equipment
C) Fingerprint contamination
D) Drug identification
91. The primary use of a forensic chemist is to:
A) Analyze fingerprints
B) Identify unknown substances
C) Estimate time of death
D) Analyze skeletal remains
92. The Scott test is used to detect:
A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Marijuana
D) LSD
93. The primary challenge in forensic chemistry is:
A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Complex mixtures
D) Fingerprint analysis
94. The primary use of a forensic physicist is to:
A) Analyze DNA
B) Analyze physical properties
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death
95. The primary challenge in forensic physics is:
A) Interpretation of patterns
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Drug identification
96. The primary use of a forensic ballistics expert is to:
A) Analyze DNA
B) Analyze firearms evidence
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death
97. The lands and grooves in a firearm barrel produce:
A) Bullet striations
B) Cartridge residues
C) Primer marks
D) Ejector marks
98. The primary challenge in forensic ballistics is:
A) Lack of equipment
B) DNA contamination
C) Matching worn firearms
D) Drug identification
99. The primary use of a forensic document examiner is to:
A) Analyze DNA
B) Detect document fraud
C) Identify drugs
D) Estimate time of death
100. The primary challenge in questioned document examination is:
A) Detecting subtle alterations
B) Lack of equipment
C) DNA contamination
D) Drug identification
