NFAT M.Sc. Forensic Science Mock Test 2025

Physics (25 Questions)

1. A point charge \( Q = +5 \, \mu \text{C} \) is at the origin, and a dipole with moment \( \vec{p} = 3 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{C} \cdot \text{m} \) along the x-axis is at \( (0.2 \, \text{m}, 0, 0) \). What is the torque on the dipole?

A) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{N} \cdot \text{m} \)

B) \( 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{N} \cdot \text{m} \)

C) \( 3.0 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{N} \cdot \text{m} \)

D) Zero

2. In a double-slit experiment, slits are 0.1 mm apart, screen is 1.5 m away, and wavelength is 600 nm. What is the fringe width if a glass plate (\( \mu = 1.5 \), thickness 0.01 mm) is placed in one slit’s path?

A) 0.45 mm

B) 0.90 mm

C) 0.60 mm

D) 1.20 mm

3. A Carnot engine operates between 600 K and 300 K, absorbing 100 J of heat. What is the work done?

A) 50 J

B) 33.33 J

C) 66.67 J

D) 25 J

4. A particle (mass 2 kg) moves under \( \vec{F} = (3t^2 \hat{i} + 2t \hat{j}) \, \text{N} \). Starting from rest at \( t = 0 \), what is its velocity at \( t = 2 \, \text{s} \)?

A) \( (4 \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \)

B) \( (8 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \)

C) \( (6 \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \)

D) \( (2 \hat{i} + 1 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \)

5. Two satellites (masses \( m \) and \( 2m \)) orbit a planet at the same radius. If the planet’s mass is \( M \), what is the ratio of their orbital velocities?

A) 1:1

B) 1:2

C) 2:1

D) \( \sqrt{2}:1 \)

6. A convex lens (focal length 20 cm) forms a real image of an object at 30 cm. A concave mirror (focal length 15 cm) is 10 cm behind the lens. Where is the final image?

A) 60 cm from the mirror

B) 30 cm from the lens

C) 45 cm from the mirror

D) 20 cm from the lens

7. A solenoid (1000 turns, 50 cm length) carries 2 A. What is the magnetic field at its center?

A) \( 5.02 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

B) \( 2.51 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

C) \( 1.26 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

D) \( 7.54 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

8. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through 100 V is approximately:

A) 1.23 nm

B) 0.123 nm

C) 12.3 nm

D) 0.0123 nm

9. A disc (radius 0.5 m) rotates with angular acceleration \( 2 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \). Starting from rest, what is the tangential acceleration at the edge after 3 s?

A) 1 m/s\(^2\)

B) 2 m/s\(^2\)

C) 3 m/s\(^2\)

D) 4 m/s\(^2\)

10. A sound wave (500 Hz, speed 340 m/s) travels in a medium. What is the phase difference between two points 0.17 m apart?

A) \( \pi/2 \)

B) \( \pi \)

C) \( 2\pi/3 \)

D) \( \pi/4 \)

11. A capacitor (10 µF) is charged to 100 V and connected to an inductor (0.1 H). What is the frequency of oscillation in the LC circuit?

A) 159.2 Hz

B) 503.2 Hz

C) 318.3 Hz

D) 100 Hz

12. A projectile is launched at 60° with 20 m/s. What is the maximum height?

A) 15.3 m

B) 10.2 m

C) 20.4 m

D) 5.1 m

13. A photon’s energy is 3.0 eV. What is its wavelength?

A) 414 nm

B) 1240 nm

C) 207 nm

D) 621 nm

14. A gas undergoes an adiabatic process with \( \gamma = 1.4 \). If pressure doubles and volume halves, what is the final temperature ratio to initial?

A) \( 2^{0.4} \)

B) \( 2^{0.6} \)

C) \( 2^{1.4} \)

D) \( 2 \)

15. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field \( \vec{B} = 0.5 \hat{k} \, \text{T} \) with velocity \( \vec{v} = (2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \). If \( q = 2 \, \mu \text{C} \), what is the force?

A) \( (3 \hat{i} - 2 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

B) \( (2 \hat{i} - 3 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

C) \( (-3 \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

D) Zero

16. A thin lens has a power of +5 D. What is its focal length?

A) 20 cm

B) 25 cm

C) 50 cm

D) 10 cm

17. A simple pendulum (length 1 m) oscillates on a planet with \( g = 4.9 \, \text{m/s}^2 \). What is its time period?

A) 2 s

B) 2.84 s

C) 1.42 s

D) 4 s

18. A transformer has 200 primary and 800 secondary turns. If the input voltage is 120 V, what is the output voltage?

A) 480 V

B) 30 V

C) 240 V

D) 960 V

19. In Young’s experiment, if the slit separation doubles, the fringe width:

A) Doubles

B) Halves

C) Remains same

D) Quadruples

20. A body of mass 5 kg falls from 20 m. What is its kinetic energy just before hitting the ground (ignore air resistance)?

A) 980 J

B) 490 J

C) 1960 J

D) 245 J

21. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2 hours. What fraction remains after 8 hours?

A) 1/16

B) 1/8

C) 1/4

D) 1/2

22. A wire of resistance 10 Ω is stretched to double its length. What is the new resistance?

A) 40 Ω

B) 20 Ω

C) 5 Ω

D) 2.5 Ω

23. A particle in SHM has amplitude 5 cm and frequency 2 Hz. What is its maximum velocity?

A) 0.2 m/s

B) 0.628 m/s

C) 0.314 m/s

D) 0.1 m/s

24. A convex mirror has a focal length of 30 cm. An object is placed 20 cm from the mirror. Where is the image?

A) 12 cm behind the mirror

B) 60 cm behind the mirror

C) 12 cm in front of the mirror

D) 60 cm in front of the mirror

25. A rocket ejects gas at 500 m/s relative to itself. If the mass ejection rate is 10 kg/s, what is the thrust?

A) 5000 N

B) 2500 N

C) 1000 N

D) 7500 N

Chemistry (25 Questions)

26. A cell with \( \text{Zn}|\text{Zn}^{2+} (0.1 \, \text{M}) || \text{Cu}^{2+} (0.01 \, \text{M})|\text{Cu} \), \( E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.10 \, \text{V} \). What is the cell potential at 298 K?

A) 1.07 V

B) 1.13 V

C) 1.04 V

D) 1.16 V

27. A reaction \( 2\text{A} \to \text{B} \) follows second-order kinetics (\( k = 0.02 \, \text{M}^{-1} \text{s}^{-1} \)). If [A] = 0.5 M initially, what is [A] after 50 s?

A) 0.167 M

B) 0.333 M

C) 0.25 M

D) 0.125 M

28. The major product of 2-methylpropene with HBr in the presence of peroxides is:

A) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane

B) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane

C) 1,2-Dibromopropane

D) 2-Bromopropane

29. Which complex has the highest crystal field splitting energy (\( \Delta_o \))?

A) \( [\text{Co}(\text{NH}_3)_6]^{3+} \)

B) \( [\text{CoF}_6]^{3-} \)

C) \( [\text{CoCl}_4]^{2-} \)

D) \( [\text{Co}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{2+} \)

30. Gas adsorption on a solid follows Langmuir’s isotherm (\( K = 0.5 \, \text{atm}^{-1} \)). What fraction of the surface is covered at 0.2 atm?

A) 0.091

B) 0.167

C) 0.333

D) 0.5

31. For a reaction, \( \Delta H = -40 \, \text{kJ/mol} \), \( \Delta S = -100 \, \text{J/mol} \cdot \text{K} \). At what temperature is it spontaneous?

A) Below 400 K

B) Above 400 K

C) Below 300 K

D) Above 500 K

32. A cubic crystal has a lattice parameter of 4 Å. What is the distance between (110) planes?

A) 2.83 Å

B) 2 Å

C) 4 Å

D) 1.41 Å

33. The magnetic moment of \( [\text{Fe}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{2+} \) is approximately:

A) 4.9 BM

B) 2.83 BM

C) 3.87 BM

D) 5.92 BM

34. Benzene with \( \text{Cl}_2 \) in the presence of \( \text{FeCl}_3 \) yields:

A) Chlorobenzene

B) 1,2-Dichlorobenzene

C) Benzyl chloride

D) Hexachlorobenzene

35. If a galvanic cell’s salt bridge is removed, what happens?

A) Cell potential increases

B) Cell stops functioning

C) Current increases

D) Electrodes dissolve

36. The pH of a 0.01 M solution of a weak acid (pKa = 4) is:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

37. The hybridization of carbon in acetylene is:

A) sp

B) sp\(^2\)

C) sp\(^3\)

D) dsp\(^2\)

38. For \( \text{N}_2 + 3\text{H}_2 \to 2\text{NH}_3 \), if \( \Delta H = -92 \, \text{kJ/mol} \), what is \( \Delta H_f \) of \( \text{NH}_3 \)?

A) -46 kJ/mol

B) -92 kJ/mol

C) -23 kJ/mol

D) -184 kJ/mol

39. Which gas deviates most from ideal behavior at high pressure?

A) He

B) H\( _2 \)

C) CO\( _2 \)

D) N\( _2 \)

40. The oxidation state of Cr in \( [\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\text{Cl}_2]\text{Cl} \) is:

A) +2

B) +3

C) +4

D) +6

41. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.0693 min\(^{-1}\). What is its half-life?

A) 10 min

B) 20 min

C) 5 min

D) 15 min

42. The IUPAC name of \( \text{CH}_3\text{CH}(\text{OH})\text{CH}_2\text{CHO} \) is:

A) 3-Hydroxybutanal

B) 2-Hydroxybutanal

C) 3-Hydroxybutan-1-one

D) 2-Hydroxypropanal

43. In a titration of NaOH with HCl, the indicator phenolphthalein changes color at pH:

A) 7

B) 9

C) 5

D) 3

44. The bond order of O\( _2^+ \) is:

A) 2.5

B) 2

C) 1.5

D) 1

45. The solubility product of \( \text{AgCl} \) is \( 1.8 \times 10^{-10} \). What is its solubility in 0.1 M NaCl?

A) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{M} \)

B) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{M} \)

C) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{M} \)

D) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{M} \)

46. The primary standard used in redox titration is:

A) KMnO\( _4 \)

B) K\( _2 \)Cr\( _2 \)O\( _7 \)

C) Na\( _2 \)S\( _2 \)O\( _3 \)

D) I\( _2 \)

47. The structure of \( \text{XeF}_4 \) is:

A) Square planar

B) Tetrahedral

C) Octahedral

D) Trigonal bipyramidal

48. The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid and strong base is:

A) -57.3 kJ/mol

B) -25.7 kJ/mol

C) -114.6 kJ/mol

D) -28.65 kJ/mol

49. The catalyst used in Haber’s process is:

A) Fe

B) Ni

C) Pt

D) Pd

50. The number of stereoisomers of 2,3-dichlorobutane is:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

Biology (25 Questions)

51. A gene has a mutation rate of \( 10^{-6} \) per generation. In a population of 10,000 in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many new mutations are expected per generation?

A) 0.01

B) 0.1

C) 1

D) 10

52. The role of DNA ligase in DNA replication is:

A) Unwinds the DNA helix

B) Joins Okazaki fragments

C) Synthesizes RNA primers

D) Proofreads DNA strands

53. The antibody primarily involved in mucosal immunity is:

A) IgG

B) IgA

C) IgM

D) IgE

54. The sodium-potassium pump maintains membrane potential by:

A) Pumping 3 Na\(^+ \) out and 2 K\(^+ \) in

B) Pumping 2 Na\(^+ \) out and 3 K\(^+ \) in

C) Pumping equal Na\(^+ \) and K\(^+ \)

D) Pumping 1 Na\(^+ \) in and 1 K\(^+ \) out

55. The model organism for studying quorum sensing is:

A) Escherichia coli

B) Vibrio fischeri

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Bacillus subtilis

56. Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts at:

A) GAATTC

B) CTTAAG

C) GGATCC

D) CCTAGG

57. Removal of a keystone species from a food web is likely to:

A) Increase biodiversity

B) Cause ecosystem collapse

C) Have no effect

D) Increase primary productivity

58. The action potential in a neuron is driven by:

A) Influx of K\(^+ \)

B) Efflux of Na\(^+ \)

C) Influx of Na\(^+ \)

D) Efflux of Cl\(^- \)

59. In PCR, the annealing temperature depends on:

A) Primer length and GC content

B) DNA polymerase type

C) Template DNA concentration

D) Cycle number

60. A dihybrid cross (AaBb × AaBb) produces a phenotypic ratio of:

A) 9:3:3:1

B) 1:1:1:1

C) 3:1

D) 1:2:1

61. The primary source of energy in Earth’s climate system is:

A) Geothermal energy

B) Solar radiation

C) Tidal energy

D) Biomass

62. The enzyme responsible for transcription is:

A) DNA polymerase

B) RNA polymerase

C) Reverse transcriptase

D) Helicase

63. The lac operon is an example of:

A) Positive regulation

B) Negative regulation

C) Constitutive expression

D) Epigenetic modification

64. The primary function of lysosomes is:

A) Protein synthesis

B) Cellular digestion

C) Energy production

D) Lipid storage

65. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes:

A) Random mating

B) Genetic variation

C) Natural selection

D) Gene flow

66. The hormone regulating blood glucose levels is:

A) Adrenaline

B) Insulin

C) Cortisol

D) Thyroxine

67. The process of programmed cell death is:

A) Necrosis

B) Apoptosis

C) Mitosis

D) Meiosis

68. The nitrogenous base unique to RNA is:

A) Thymine

B) Uracil

C) Cytosine

D) Adenine

69. The primary site of protein synthesis in a cell is:

A) Nucleus

B) Mitochondria

C) Ribosomes

D) Golgi apparatus

70. The process of crossing over occurs during:

A) Prophase I of meiosis

B) Metaphase of mitosis

C) Anaphase II of meiosis

D) Telophase of mitosis

71. The carbon source for photosynthesis is:

A) Glucose

B) CO₂

C) Oxygen

D) Starch

72. The primary function of hemoglobin is:

A) Blood clotting

B) Oxygen transport

C) Immune response

D) Enzyme catalysis

73. The enzyme that unwinds DNA during replication is:

A) Ligase

B) Helicase

C) Polymerase

D) Primase

74. The organelle responsible for ATP production is:

A) Nucleus

B) Mitochondria

C) Endoplasmic reticulum

D) Lysosome

75. The genetic disorder caused by trisomy 21 is:

A) Down syndrome

B) Turner syndrome

C) Klinefelter syndrome

D) Cystic fibrosis

Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)

76. The first responder at a crime scene should prioritize:

A) Collecting physical evidence

B) Securing the scene

C) Interviewing witnesses

D) Analyzing trace evidence

77. The best method for collecting latent fingerprints from a non-porous surface is:

A) Ninhydrin

B) Cyanoacrylate fuming

C) Silver nitrate

D) Iodine fuming

78. The best method for detecting cyanide in a blood sample is:

A) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry

B) UV-Vis spectroscopy

C) Thin-layer chromatography

D) Atomic absorption spectroscopy

79. The theory that crime results from a lack of social control is:

A) Strain theory

B) Social control theory

C) Differential association theory

D) Labeling theory

80. Mitochondrial DNA is preferred in forensic analysis because:

A) It is unique to each individual

B) It is inherited paternally

C) It has a high copy number per cell

D) It is less prone to mutations

81. The Frye standard determines:

A) Admissibility of scientific evidence

B) Chain of custody

C) Expert witness qualifications

D) Crime scene reconstruction

82. The elemental composition of gunshot residue is analyzed by:

A) Scanning electron microscopy-energy dispersive X-ray spectroscopy

B) Fourier-transform infrared spectroscopy

C) Mass spectrometry

D) X-ray diffraction

83. The Kastle-Meyer test detects:

A) Blood

B) Semen

C) Saliva

D) Urine

84. Striation marks on a bullet are influenced by:

A) Bullet caliber

B) Gun barrel rifling

C) Powder type

D) Firing pin

85. Verifying the integrity of digital evidence involves:

A) Hashing

B) Encryption

C) Compression

D) Steganography

86. The most reliable method for identifying decomposed remains is:

A) Bloodstain pattern analysis

B) Dental identification

C) DNA profiling

D) Toxicological screening

87. The Locard’s exchange principle states:

A) Every contact leaves a trace

B) Evidence must be admissible

C) Chain of custody is paramount

D) Crime scenes must be secured

88. The best method to analyze questioned documents is:

A) Gas chromatography

B) Infrared spectroscopy

C) Microscopy

D) DNA sequencing

89. The bloodstain pattern indicating high-velocity impact is:

A) Swipe

B) Spatter

C) Pool

D) Transfer

90. The primary psychoactive compound in cannabis is:

A) THC

B) CBD

C) CBN

D) THCA

91. The Daubert standard evaluates:

A) Reliability of scientific evidence

B) Chain of custody

C) Witness credibility

D) Evidence collection

92. The technique for analyzing hair samples in forensics is:

A) Neutron activation analysis

B) Scanning electron microscopy

C) Gas chromatography

D) UV-Vis spectroscopy

93. The primary purpose of a forensic autopsy is to:

A) Identify the victim

B) Determine cause of death

C) Collect DNA evidence

D) Reconstruct the crime scene

94. The presumptive test for semen is:

A) Acid phosphatase test

B) Kastle-Meyer test

C) Luminol test

D) Takayama test

95. The ridge characteristics of fingerprints are called:

A) Minutiae

B) Loops

C) Arches

D) Whorls

96. The forensic technique to recover deleted files is:

A) Data carving

B) Hashing

C) Encryption

D) Compression

97. The most reliable method for individual identification is:

A) Fingerprinting

B) DNA profiling

C) Bite mark analysis

D) Hair analysis

98. The primary source of error in forensic toxicology is:

A) Sample contamination

B) Equipment failure

C) Human error

D) All of the above

99. The forensic significance of soil evidence lies in:

A) Its color

B) Its unique composition

C) Its density

D) Its pH

100. The technique to analyze tool marks is:

A) Comparison microscopy

B) Spectrophotometry

C) Gas chromatography

D) Electrophoresis

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